SAGINAW VALLEY MEDICAL CONTROL AUTHORITY


MFR System Exam


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Level of Licensure AND Agency

1: After being stung by a bee, an 8-year-old patient presents with a rash and wheezing. This patient is having a:
a. Mild allergic reaction
b. Moderate allergic reaction
c. Severe allergic reaction
d. Anaphylactic Shock

2: Among other treatment modalities, this patient’s treatment should include:
a. Vital Signs
b. Arrange for ALS
c. Oxygen @ 15 lpm via NRB
d. All the above

3: You arrive on the scene of a cardiac arrest, and as the first responder agency you have applied your AED. It has delivered one shock, You should:
a. Disconnect their AED.
b. Immediately place an oral airway and ventilate patient with a BVM.
c. Begin CPR at a rate of 30 compression/two breaths for 5 cycles
d. Push the analyze button to see if the patient might need a second shock

4: You are dispatched to a male patient having chest pain. Your treatment of this patient would include:
a. O2 via N/C at 4-6 lpm
b. Evaluate Circulation
c. Assist patient in taking one 325mg Aspirin, if not allergic and/or patient has just taken one for the current episode.
d. All of the above

5: You arrive on the scene of an 18-year-old female with vaginal bleeding. You have started O2 via NRB @ 15 lpm and obtained vital signs. You determine that your patient is in late term pregnancy. What should you do next?
a. Decease the O2 to N/C at 4-6 lpm
b. Tell the patient this is more that likely the start of her labor and it is normal to have bleeding.
c. Have the patient contact her Obstetrical Doctor for further instructions
d. Place the patient in the left recumbent position

6: During your assessment of this patient it is important to determine?
a. If she knows the sex of her baby
b. Gestation and whether single or multiple births are expected
c. Previous Births and complications
d. Both b & c

7: Called to a local trucking company for a 27-year-old male patient with burns to upper torso. You find the patient covered with a coarse powder substance and complaining of burning on exposed areas. What should you do first?
a. Starting treating the patient
b. Check to see what he was handling before the incident
c. Consult a Hazmat book
d. Check for scene safety

8: Your patient has dry chemical burns. You are cleared by the fire dept. on scene to attend to the patient. You should:
a. Establish and maintain the airway, provide oxygen and ventilation support as needed.
b. Provide appropriate wound care
c. Use protective equipment and prepare for decontamination.
d. Start brushing away the dry powder and have patient remove his shirt and shake off the dry chemical so that you do not get it on yourself and equipment.

9: You arrive on scene at a residence for a 21year old male patient. Friends on scene found patient in back yard unresponsive. Friends claim he was struck in head earlier with a baseball, but appeared fine. Baseline vitals are: BP 160/90 Pulse 100 Resp 6, Pupils are unequal. In this case, hyperventilation of the adult head injury patient:
a. Is not recommended due to signs of cerebral herniation.
b. Is considered between 16 and 20 breathes per minute
c. Is considered between 27 and 30 breaths per minute
d. Both a & b

10: The above patient must be monitored closely for:
a. Airway compromise and breathing difficulties
b. Suicidal and bizarre behavior
c. Signs of shock and circulatory collapse
d. Conjunctivitis due to unequal pupils

11: You are called to the home of an elderly female who reportedly has had a stroke. When you arrive, you note that the patient has slurred speech, but is able to vocalize that she is having a bad headache. She has an obvious facial droop and you also elicit pronator drift. Which of the above characteristics is not part of the Cincinnati Pre-Hospital Stroke Assessment?
a. Complaint of headache
b. Abnormal speech
c. Facial droop
d. Pronator drift

12: You arrive at the scene of a bonfire. You assess a patient who apparently threw a can of spray paint into the fire and it exploded on him. He has full thickness burns that cover the entirety of this upper limbs (including upper arms, forearms and hands). Approximately what percentage of body surface area has been burned:
a. 9%
b. 18%
c. 27%
d. 45%

13: Regarding the above patient, how should the burns be dressed in the pre- hospital setting:
a. Clean, dry dressing should be applied
b. Cool, wet dressing should be applied
c. No dressing should be applied
d. Vaseline gauze dressing should be applied

14: You arrive at the scene of a head-on motor vehicle accident. The driver pf both vehicles are ambulatory at the scene, even though both the cars are severely damaged and a passenger has been killed on impact. On of the drivers smells strongly of alcohol. The other has a badly contused forehead, disfigured forearm, and does not make sense when talking to you. No other complains of neck pain. Which of the drivers should have his cervical spine immobilized:
a. The driver intoxicated with alcohol
b. The driver with the disfigured forearm and head injury
c. Neither
d. Both

15: According to SVMCA Practice Parameters, which of the following was not an indication to apply cervical spine immobilization?
a. Head injury
b. Intoxication
c. Passenger killed
d. Disfigured forearm
e. All of the above are absolute indications to immobilize the cervical spine.

16: You are called to the scene of a pediatric drowning. A 5-year-old child is pulled from a cold (38 degrees F) river after being submerged for nearly 30 minutes. Which of the following best describes your initial approach to this patient.
a. Contact Medical Control for Code 12
b. Assess for signs of lividity
c. Establish a definitive airway
d. Obtain a core temperature

17: Regarding the above patient, what would be the best way to obtain his core body temperature:
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Ancillary
d. Core temperature has no role in the prehospital setting

18: You arrive on scene to find a patient who is pulseless and apenic. The patient is wearing a purple wristband that clearly states she is DNR. Her daughter, the legal guardian, is visibly upset. She is jumping up and down demanding that you do something for her mother. “You can’t just let her die”, she screams. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
a. Ask her to step out of the room
b. Tell her that her mother is part of the DNR Program and therefore you can’t do anything.
c. Begin resuscitative efforts including CPR, AED, etc.
d. Request that the Medical Examiner be sent to your location.

19: You are called for a 2 year-old patient having a seizure. On arrival you find the patient seizing with obvious tonic-clonic movements. Which of the following would you assess first?
a. Capillary refill time
b. Pulse
c. Rectal Temperature
d. Blood Pressure

20: Saginaw Valley Medical Control Authority is formed by statue and is responsible for overseeing the EMS activities of:
a. Medical First Responders
b. EMT-Basics & EMT-Specialists
c. Paramedics
d. All of the above

21: A patient that is awake, oriented, and able to make his wishes known is suffering from abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. Vital signs are all stable. Transport destination should be to:
a. The facility that the patient chooses to go
b. The facility his neighbor tells you to go
c. The facility most convenient for you to go
d. The facility that offers the best snacks

22: A 30 year-old patient has a cut in his arm, which was initially profusely bleeding. When you arrive, you assess the wound, stop the bleeding with a pressure dressing, and determine there is intact neurovascular status of that arm. The patient now refuses to go to the hospital and states he would go later by POV. Which of the following is true?
a. He cannot refuse transport since he already had treatment by EMS.
b. He can be allowed to refuse transport as long as he fulfills the PRS checklist as well as all other paperwork by the BLS and/or ALS responding unit.
c. He cannot refuse unless approved by medical control because all PRS’s need to have medical control approval

23: Assessment of vital signs and medical treatments for pediatric patients should be based on the patient’s:
a. Age
b. Size and weight
c. Level of emotional maturity
d. Ability to comprehend

24: Which of the is a patient that needs to be properly backboarded?
a. 18 y/o male with an injured ankle while playing basketball
b. 60 y/o female with an injured hip from a trip and fall
c. 25 y/o male driver not restrained who struck and cracked the windshield during an motor vehicle crash
d. 30 y/o female driver, restraint, airbag deployed, no direct trauma, involved in a low speed motor vehicle crash

25: From the above patients which one would be a candidate for MAST pants in the SVMCA system?
a. The 18 y/o male if he had also injured his other ankle
b. The 60 y/o female if her pelvis was unstable due to her hip fracture
c. The 25 y/o male if his systolic blood pressure was less than 90 mmHg
d. Any of them since all trauma patients should be treated with MAST pants

26: Once Mast pants are in place they maybe adjusted for comfort but are not to deflated in the field unless direct verbal order to do so is received from an on-line Medical Control Physician.
a. True
b. False

27: 60 y/o female with respiratory distress that deteriorates into respiratory arrest could be managed by a MFR prior to BLS or ALS arrival with which of the following airway techniques/adjuvant?
a. Oropharyngeal
b. Nasopharyngeal
c. Comitibue
d. Both a & b

28: All of the following equipment must be taken to the patient’s side for initial assessment except:
a. Standardized Jump Kit
b. Long backboard & cervical collar
c. Portable O2 with airway adjuncts
d. AED

29: Universal precautions (gloves, mask, and eye protection) should be used when:
a. Cleaning if instruments and/or equipment
b. Suctioning or Combitube placement
c. Penetrating trauma/laceration
d. All of the above

30: While caring for a patient with epistaxis he sneezed and splashed blood all over the place. You got some on your eyes and mouth. Your next step is:
a. Report the incident immediately to your agency supervisor (or equivalent position)
b. Reprimand the patient for being reckless and proceed to leave the scene
c. Wait for a month and then get blood drawn to see if you develop Hep C or HIV
d. Wash the area thoroughly for at least 15 minutes and that should suffice

31: You respond to a doctor’s office for a 29 y/o female with respiratory distress. The doctor, who is the patient’s private physician, wants to direct you in the treatment of his own patient under his personal direction. You would
a. Politely ignore the doctor’s orders and continue treating the patient as you see appropriate based on your own experience.
b. Call central and have a police unit dispatched to the scene to remove the doctor from the patient’s side.
c. Allow the doctor to direct EMS care only if it is consistent with SVMCA Policies and Practice Parameters
d. Allow the doctor to direct care the way he thinks is appropriate as he has a higher level of licensure and knows the patient well.

32: When responding on an emergency run, you find yourself responding with several other units simultaneously. You should:
a. Follow other emergency vehicles in tandem
b. Maintain a minimum of 100 feet between yourself and the preceding emergency vehicle
c. Maintain a minimum of 500 feet between yourself and the preceding emergency vehicle
d. It is not measured in feet, but you must leave enough space between you and the proceeding vehicle to stop quickly if necessary

33: When approaching a school zone/school bus with your lights and siren on you must:
a. Maintain your speed 10 mph over the posted speed limit
b. Proceed as normal, you are a emergency vehicle with all the proper emergency warning devices functioning
c. Follow the posted speed and make sure that all children are a safe distance
d. Run through all the different siren tones on your control panel to make sure they know you are approaching.

34: Every Three years when my license expires I will receive a letter from SVMCA to remind me to turn in my new license and other required credentials to SVMCA:
a. True
b. False

35: Which of the follow is a contraindication for use of the AED:
a. Valid DNR orders
b. Witnessed arrest
c. Unwitnessed arrest and bystander CPR in progress
d. Child older than 1 year of age

36: Helmets should be removed when:
a. The face mask or visor interferes with adequate ventilation or with your ability to restore an adequate airway.
b. The helmet is so loose that securing it to the spinal immobilization device will not provide adequate immobilization of the patient head.
c. Life-threatening hemorrhage under the helmet can only be controlled by its removal
d. All of the above are correct


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